Is it legal for a Government to influence trade associations to fix higher prices? If the French government was influencing a cartel of wine producers to indulge in anti-competitive practices, how would our Government react? Why is it any different for a cartel of publicans to agree not to offer discounts than it would be for a cartel of car dealers, lawyers or undertakers? Why should responsible, well-behaved drinkers pay more for their drinks because some idiots make fools of themselves when drunk?
Will someone please tell this Government that we are not its children?
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